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Mar 12, 2018 at 18:17 answer added Lance Fortnow timeline score: 5
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Aug 4, 2011 at 1:23 answer added Tayfun Pay timeline score: 1
Feb 9, 2011 at 14:11 comment added Hsien-Chih Chang 張顯之 @Artem: I guess the class $\mathsf{NP}$ counts? A nice syntactic class it is, but no known semantic characterization exists. (Unlike the plausible conjecture $\mathsf{NL} = \mathsf{UL}$, which reduces the syntactic class $\mathsf{NL}$ into something only accepts or rejects with specific patterns; here accepts only if there is a unique accepting computation path and rejects if there is none.)
Feb 8, 2011 at 22:00 comment added Artem Kaznatcheev on the "or vice versa": what would a semantic characterization of a syntactic class be? Is there examples of a semantic class without such a semantic characterization?
Feb 8, 2011 at 18:05 comment added Hsien-Chih Chang 張顯之 @Robin: Thanks for the comment. So we should consider a semantic class which is not believed to have a syntactic characterization, say the unambiguous poly-time $\mathsf{UP}$. But it doesn't have too much "nice properties" though. Any other examples?
Feb 8, 2011 at 17:55 comment added Robin Kothari It can never hurt to have a syntactic characterization of a semantic class. I don't see how one can compare the benefits of having a syntactic or semantic characterization of a class. BPP is not known to have a syntactic characterization, but it is widely believed to have one (if P = BPP), so the fact that BPP has "nice properties" doesn't seem to have anything to do with it being a semantic class.
Feb 8, 2011 at 6:45 history asked Hsien-Chih Chang 張顯之 CC BY-SA 2.5