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Mar 22 at 12:54 comment added XL _At_Here_There @NoahSchweber, by what theorem, it can be deduced that "The resulting number is a dyadic rational iff $\varphi(n)$ holds"?
Mar 20 at 2:18 comment added XL _At_Here_There @NoahSchweber, thanks.
Mar 20 at 1:33 comment added Noah Schweber @XL_At_Here_There $\varphi$ is an arbitrary $\Pi^0_2$ property; see the sentence beginning "this isn't hard to prove." (And look in Soare's book if you're not familiar with $\Pi^0_2$ completeness proofs.)
Mar 20 at 1:20 comment added XL _At_Here_There What do you mean by “The resulting number is a dyadic rational iff φ(n) holds”? what is $\phi (x)$? It's definition?
Oct 13, 2021 at 21:36 history edited Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 11, 2021 at 6:20 comment added Shaull Nice answer! Thanks. By now I don't even have a vague memory of why I was interested in this question, but still - great to have an answer! :)
Oct 11, 2021 at 6:19 vote accept Shaull
Oct 10, 2021 at 23:17 history answered Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0