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Apr 14 at 20:23 vote accept deltaepsilonnn
Apr 14 at 20:22 comment added deltaepsilonnn @NealYoung Added!
Apr 14 at 20:22 history edited deltaepsilonnn CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 13 at 21:35 answer added Neal Young timeline score: 10
Apr 13 at 16:23 review Suggested edits
Apr 14 at 11:15
Apr 13 at 15:11 comment added Neal Young To make the post more self-contained, can you give the definition of $H_i = \{ v : v\cdot w_i = 0 \}$?
Apr 13 at 6:20 history edited D.W. CC BY-SA 4.0
Include paper reference in the body of the post. Avoid use of "EDIT"
Apr 13 at 6:07 comment added D.W. Please don't use "EDIT: more stuff". Instead, revise the question so it reads well for someone who encounters it for the first time. See cs.meta.stackexchange.com/q/657/755
Apr 13 at 4:43 history edited Tayfun Pay CC BY-SA 4.0
There is no theorem 4(i)... It is 2.4(i)
Apr 12 at 19:59 history edited deltaepsilonnn CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 11 at 14:07 comment added deltaepsilonnn @EmilJeřábek That is as far as I got also. If we assume that $| S_i |$ becomes 1 at some point and $H_1 \cap \cdots \cap H_n = \{ 0^n \}$ then $S_i$ must have become singleton for some $i \le n$. I do not think those two events are independent, but it seems sufficient to show that they have a positive correlation. I am just not seeing it for the case when $0^n \notin S$.
Apr 11 at 11:40 review Close votes
Apr 16 at 3:08
Apr 11 at 11:35 comment added Emil Jeřábek Clearly, $P_n(S)\ge\Pr[\exists i\,|S_i|=1\& H_1\cap\dots\cap H_n=\{0\}]$. But it’s not clear to me why these two events should be independent (if that is intended to be the argument).
Apr 10 at 19:21 history edited deltaepsilonnn CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 10 at 19:20 history edited deltaepsilonnn CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Apr 10 at 19:19 review First questions
Apr 11 at 11:20
S Apr 10 at 19:19 history asked deltaepsilonnn CC BY-SA 4.0