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May 2 at 18:10 comment added Bartosz Bednarczyk Would the problem make sense if instead of considering languages, one would consider randomly selected Turing machines?
May 2 at 17:49 vote accept abrahimladha
May 2 at 16:51 comment added abrahimladha @EmilJeřábek Reading more, I see the formalization is insufficient, but I think the question could still have an answer. Take either the construction used in Chaitins constant and ask what is the probability a random program has a polynomial time bound conditioned on the fact it has a polynomial space bound. Another way may be to ask about natural density. I suppose I am also asking on a formalization of this question.
May 2 at 16:49 answer added Joshua Grochow timeline score: 6
May 2 at 16:23 comment added Emil Jeřábek There is no such thing as a "uniformly random" distribution on a countable infinite set.
May 2 at 15:42 history asked abrahimladha CC BY-SA 4.0