If we can prove that $\mathsf{L}=\mathsf{P}$, does it imply that $\mathsf{NL}=\mathsf{NP}$ ?
I thought it is the case, but I cannot prove it (also for the converse).
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Sign up to join this communityIf we can prove that $\mathsf{L}=\mathsf{P}$, does it imply that $\mathsf{NL}=\mathsf{NP}$ ?
I thought it is the case, but I cannot prove it (also for the converse).
No. It is possible that L=P and that P != NP which implies that NL != NP since NL is contained in P.