To exactly sample from the binomial distribution on $\{0,1,\cdots,n\}$ requires $n$ random bits. However, we can approximately sample with $O(\log(n/\varepsilon))$ bits, where $\varepsilon$ is the statistical distance from binomial we allow.
Let $$a_0=0, ~~~~a_{k+1}=a_k+{n \choose k} \cdot 2^{-n} ~~~~(k \in \{0,1,\cdots,n\}).$$ We can sample exactly from the binomial distribution by sampling $x \in [0,1)$ uniformly and then picking $k$ such that $x \in [a_k,a_{k+1})$. The probability of picking any given $k$ is thus $$\mathrm{Pr}_x[k]=\mathrm{Pr}_x[x\in[a_k,a_{k+1})] = a_{k+1}-a_k = {n \choose k} \cdot 2^{-n}.$$
We will sample approximately by sampling $\tilde{x} \in \{ 0, 1/m, 2/m, \cdots, (m-1)/m \}$ uniformly and then picking $k$ such that $\tilde{x} \in [a_k,a_{k+1})$. This requires $O(\log m)$ bits of randomness. We have $$\mathrm{Pr}_\tilde{x}[k]=\mathrm{Pr}_\tilde{x}[\tilde{x}\in[a_k,a_{k+1})]=\frac{\lceil m a_{k+1} \rceil - \lceil m a_k \rceil}{m}=a_{k+1}-a_k \pm \frac{1}{m} =\mathrm{Pr}_x[k] \pm \frac{1}{m}.$$
So the difference between the probability of $k$ under exact sampling and under approximate sampling is at most $1/m$. Summing over all $k$, we have that the statistical distance is at most $(n+1)/m$. Setting $m=O(n/\varepsilon)$ ensures that the approximate sampling is $\varepsilon$ statistically close to binomial.