It is well known that the equivalence problem is undecidable for general context-free languages. However, all proofs of this fact that I am aware of seem to involve some ambiguous context-free grammars. For this reason, I would like to ask if it is known whether the problem remains undecidable while restricting oneself to unambiguous context-free languages. That is, given two context-free grammars that are a priori granted to be unambiguous, is it decidable whether they are equivalent or not?
I find this problem a little intriguing, since it is known that equivalence is decidable for deterministic context-free languages, though this result is far from trivial... On the other hand, there might be some simple reason for undecidability that I have been overlooking.