In this thread, Norbet Blum's attempted $P \neq NP$ proof is succinctly disproved by noting that the Tardos function is a counterexample to Theorem 6.
Theorem 6: Let $f \in \mathcal{B}_n$ be any monotone Boolean function. Assume that there is a CNF-DNF-approximator $\mathcal{A}$ which can be used to prove a lower bound for $C_m(f)$. Then $\mathcal{A}$ can also be used to prove the same lower bound for $C_{st}(f)$.
Here's my problem: the Tardos function is not a Boolean function, so how does it satisfy the hypotheses of Theorem 6?
In this paper, they discuss the complexity of the function $\varphi(X) \leq f(v)$, which is not in general a monotone Boolean function, since increasing edges can make $\varphi(X)$ larger to make $\varphi(X) \leq f(v)$ false when it was true with fewer $1$'s in the input. The function $\varphi(X) \geq f(v)$ does not, in general, compute $1$ on $T_1$ and $0$ on $T_0$.
In fact, the test sets $T_1$ and $T_0$ are chosen precisely so that computing $1$ on $T_1$ and $0$ on $T_0$ with monotonicity means your function in precisely computing CLIQUE (they define the boundary of the $1$'s and $0$'s in the lattice of inputs), so these remarks imply that the Tardos function is the same as CLIQUE, which is clearly not true.
Yet, so many people -- and such knowledgeable people -- claim that the Tardos function provides an immediate counterexample, so there must be something I'm missing. Could you please provide a detailed explanation or proof for those of us who are interested parties but not quite on your level?