this is my first question here so I hope I've done everything correctly.
I know that if someone finds a polynomial solution to any of the famous NP problems, all of them has one (polynomial solution).
Does this hold for say a k^n solution (and if, must they all have the same exponent) ?
And my real question, is there some relation among NP problems in the sense that say one solution is n! then another can't be (n²)! or is that (the n²) 'eaten up' by the "!" ?
Please point me in the right direction if you can.
Thanks for your time and I hope my question is clear enough.