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There is an old trick for writing down an algorithm that, if P = NP, solves SAT in polynomial time. Essentially, one lists all polynomial time machines and multi-tasks over them.

Is there an analogous trick for one-way functions (or even one-way trapdoor functions)? That is, can we write down a function that, if one-way functions exist, is necessarily a one-way function?

There seems to be no easy way to mimic the P = NP trick. In that case, we can quickly recognize a solution when we get one. But if I multi-task over all polynomial time functions, there's no obvious way to recognize a one-way function when I arrive at one.

If the answer to the above question is no, is there some kind of argument why we can't do it? Maybe writing down such a function would somehow prove that one-way functions exist?

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  • $\begingroup$ Hi Timothy Chow, maybe you can help and point to a link where the trick for writing down an algorithm, that if P = NP, solves SAT in polynomial time, is formalized? Thanks allot $\endgroup$
    – Avi Tal
    Sep 15, 2018 at 11:20
  • $\begingroup$ @AviTal See for example this: scholarpedia.org/article/Universal_search $\endgroup$
    – Vanessa
    Sep 16, 2018 at 13:10

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Yes, such a function was found by Levin himself, published somewhat recently:

The tale of one-way functions. Problems of Information Transmission (= Problemy Peredachi Informatsii), 39(1):92-103, 2003.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks! Using Google Scholar, I was able to use this reference to find a reference for a complete public key cryptosystem, by Grigoriev, Hirsch, and Pervyshev, Groups-Complexity-Cryptology 1 (2009), 1-12. $\endgroup$ Sep 15, 2018 at 1:54
  • $\begingroup$ Could you please explain details of this function? As why it aborts after n^2 steps, why to 'preserve a copy of the program prefix and force it, as well as the input length, on the output' and what 'only at places where such possible extension is unique' means exactly. I don't know if this deserves a separate question. $\endgroup$
    – galmeida
    Sep 6, 2019 at 1:46
  • $\begingroup$ @BjørnKjos-Hanssen cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/44496/… $\endgroup$
    – galmeida
    Sep 8, 2019 at 1:00

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