Continuing https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/90527/is-every-pspace-complete-problem-complete-with-respect-to-logspace-reductions : earlier, PSPACE-completeness was defined via logspace reductions (e.g., cf. http://www.cs.cornell.edu/~kozen/Papers/LowerBounds.pdf), whereas it is defined via ptime reductions nowadays (e.g., cf. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PSPACE).
Why has it changed? Is it just because the folks after Dexter Kozen got too lazy even to say that one can go the extra mile to show that their reductions are actually logspace, let alone actually going that extra mile? Or is there a deeper, technical reason?