Let $\Sigma = \{ 1, 2, \ldots, n\}$ be some alphabet. Assume that you have a coin with n-sides (each side corresponds to a letter in $\Sigma$), and we get each letter with equal probability. Now you can think of an infinite word $w$ over $\Sigma$ as a result of tossing the n-sided coin infinitely many times.
With this view, I can think of $\omega$-regular langauges over $\Sigma$ as events. There are interesting languages that have measure $0$. For example, consider the language $L = \bigcup\limits_{i\in \Sigma } \Sigma^* \cdot (\Sigma \setminus \{i\})^\omega$. That is, $L$ consists of all infinite words over $\Sigma$ that have finitely many $i$'s, for some $i$.
Now I am interested in computing $P(L_2|L)$ for some language $L_2 \subseteq L$. Sometimes, I can guess the answer by "symmetry" considerations in case $L$ and $L_2$ are "simple" enough, but my question is: how can I condition on a language $L$ which is of measure $0$ in the general case?
Example: assume again that $L = \bigcup\limits_{i\in \Sigma } \Sigma^* \cdot (\Sigma \setminus \{i\})^\omega$. Consider the following event (or language):
$$ L_2 = L\setminus \{ w \in \Sigma^\omega: \text{$w$ has finitely many 1's, and every $j\neq 1$ appears infinitely often in $w$}\}$$
What is $P(L_2|L)$? In other words, how can I compute the fraction of words that I did not through out from $L$.
I believe there is a way to condition on a language of measure $0$ but I'm not sure how. A similar simple situation appears in the following: one can sample a random $(x, y)$ point in a rectangle $[0, 1]\times [0, 1] \subseteq\mathbb{R}_2$ and then ask what is the probability $P(y \geq \frac{1}{2} | x = \frac{1}{2})$. Clearly, this probability is $\frac{1}{2}$ although we condition on the line $x = \frac{1}{2}$ which has measure $0$ in $[0, 1]\times [0, 1]$. The way I think about the line-rectangle example is as follows. I imagine the line $x = \frac{1}{2}$ as a rectangle of width $\epsilon \to 0$. Is there a similar approach that can be adapted to $\omega$-reuglar languages?