Is it true that $$O(n) = \bigcap \{ O(g) \mid g \in \omega(n) \}?$$
This appears to be a straighforward question about sets of functions, but on closer examination leads to some murky waters. I would be interested either in a construction of a counterexample function which doesn't require a choice principle independent of ZF set theory, or a proof which avoids invoking such a principle.