Background
There are two fairly common definitions of solvability. The general one states that the term can be used to get any chosen result (i.e. normal form):$$T\text{ solvable} \overset{\text{def}}{=}\forall N,\exists K,K[T]\to^*N\land \lnot \forall U,K[U]\to ^*N$$and the simplified one, which is far more common, states that it can be used as an operator to get the identity:$$T\text{ solvable} \overset{\text{def}}{=}\exists H,H[T]\to^*I$$where $H$ ranges over contexts of the shape $(\lambda x_1.\dots .\lambda x_q.\square) t_1\dots t_r$ (that close the term $T$), and $I=\lambda x.x$ is the identity.
I will call the first definition K-N-solvability and the second H-I-solvability.
Question
In the paper Call-by-value solvability, the equivalence between K-N-solvability and H-I-solvability is said to mean that "$\lambda$-terms have functional behavior" (second half of p. 508). It is then said that the call-by-value $\lambda$-calculus also has functional behavior, and that it is therefore reasonable to use H-I-solvability in the call-by-value $\lambda$-calculus.
I am under the impression that both definitions of solvability are not equivalent in the call-by-value $\lambda$-calculus. The term $\lambda x.\Omega$ with $\Omega =(\lambda x_1.x_1x_1)(\lambda x_2.x_2x_2)$ not H-I-solvable, but seems to be K-N-solvable since $K=(\lambda y.I)[]$ is such that $K[\lambda x.\Omega]\to I$ and $K[\Omega]$ can not reduce to a normal form because it can only reduce to itself (because we are in call-by-value).
Did I miss something?
If not, is this written somewhere I could cite?
(I also think that K-N-solvability is equivalent to what the authors call potential valuability)