In the simple proof of the johnson lindenstrauss lemma written by Sanjoy Dasgupta, Anupam Gupta that can be found here they state the following (p.$62$):
Repeating this projection $O(n)$ times can boost the success probability to the desired constant, giving us the claimed randomized polynomial time algorithm.
My idea is to see that the success probability of a single trial is $1/n$ thus the success probability of atleast one trial out of $n$ trials is $1 - (1/n)^n$ if we then set it to be larger than $0.95$ we end up with: $0.05 > (1 - 1/n)^n$ thus $\log(0.05) > n\log(1 - 1/n)$ but i think this way of proving it is wrong.
Could someone help me bring some clarity into this?