Given a polynomial functor $F$, its initial algebra is denoted by $\mu X.F(X)$. Now, if $F$ is a 2-variable polynomial functor, $Y \mapsto \mu X.F(X,Y)$ turns out to be functorial and we can, again, (check some hypotheses and) compute the initial algebra $\mu Y. \mu X.F(X,Y)$.
Is it true (with or without additional hypotheses) that $\mu Y. \mu X.F(X,Y) \simeq \mu Z.F(Z, Z)$?
For example, if $F(X,Y) := 1+X+Y$, it amounts to the equality $(x+y)^{\ast} = (x^{\ast} (\varepsilon + y))^{\ast}$ on words.
I tried to find a proof using only the initiality of the algebras, but I couldn't — and I suppose it's good news, because if it was true in general, mutual induction wouldn't be of any interest, am I right?
So I guess I have to look at the characterisation of initial algebras by Adamek's theorem, but again I'm not sure what to look for.