I define a function f
to be one-way iff for any sufficiently large x
computing f(x)
bounded by a polynomial, but reversing it (i.e. finding such y
that f(x) = f(y)
) has no algorithm in P
(except, maybe, a negligible probability of guessing y
given x
was chosen truly randomly).
Clearly, no one-way function can exist if P = NP
. The question I am puzzled with is whether P != NP
would imply the existence of such a function.
To the best of my thinking, the answer is negative: even if there are problems in NP
that do not belong to P
we can't know they "reverse" some other problem in P
. Am I right?