I expect the answer is no, but I could not actually construct a counterexample. The difference is that in $∩_{ε>0} \mathrm{DTIME}(O(n^{2+ε}))$, we might not be able to pick an $O(n^{2+ε})$ algorithm uniformly in $ε$.
By a dovetailing argument (for example, see this question), if there is a c.e. set of Turing machines $M_i$ deciding a language $L$ such that $∀ε>0 ∃M_i ∈ O(n^{2+ε})$, then $L$ is in $\mathrm{DTIME}(n^{2+o(1)})$.
Given a Turing machine, whether the machine runs in time $n^{2+o(1)}$ is $Π^0_3$-complete. Whether a language (given a code for a machine recognizing it) is in $\mathrm{DTIME}(n^{2+o(1)})$ is $Σ^0_4$ (and $Π^0_3$-hard); whether a language is in $∩_{ε>0} \mathrm{DTIME}(O(n^{2+ε}))$ is $Π^0_3$-complete. If we can prove $Σ^0_4$ completeness (or just $Σ^0_3$-hardness) of $\mathrm{DTIME}(n^{2+o(1)})$, that would solve the problem, but I am not sure how to do that.
The problem would also be solved if we find a sequence of languages $L_i$ such that
* $L_i$ has a natural $O(n^{2+1/i})$ decision algorithm (uniformly in $i$).
* Each $L_i$ is finite.
* Not only is the size of $L_i$ undecidable, but an algorithm cannot rule out $w∈L_i$ much faster than $O(n^{2+1/i})$ (for worst case $w$), except for finitely many $i$ (dependent on the algorithm).
I am also curious whether there any notable/interesting examples (for $∩_{ε>0} \mathrm{DTIME}(O(n^{2+ε})) \setminus \mathrm{DTIME}(n^{2+o(1)})$ or an analogous relation).