Say that we have a distribution $\mathcal{D}$ such that all probabitilities associated with it are $p$-bit fixed precision numbers, so: $$ \Pr_{X\sim \mathcal{D}}[X = k] =\sum_{i = 1}^p \frac{k_i}{2^i},\quad k_i\in\{0,1\} $$ Say that this is a non-trivial $p$-bit distribution if at least one element $k$ truly takes all $p$ bits to represent, meaning $\exists k\in\mathsf{supp}(\mathcal{D})$ such that $k_p = 1$
I'm interested in the number of $\mathsf{Bern}(1/2)$ random variables required to sample a single sample from this in the worst-case. From some discussions with others we think it's obvious that it's $p$, and that there should be a lower bound. It seems like a rather basic observation though, so I was wondering if I could find it in the literature anywhere so I could cite it.
Edit: To make the question slightly more specific, I have a ~1/2 page information theoretic argument showing this is true (it's really quite trivial), so I'm solely looking for a reference for who to cite regarding this lower bound.