Let me define a ``Lasserre map of degree $d$" as a linear map $L : \mathbb{R}_n[x] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ i.e a real valued linear map on polynomials over $n$ variables with real coeffients. This is further expected to satisfy, $(1)$ $L(1) =1$ and $(2)$ as $L(P^2) \geq 0$ if $deg(P) \leq \frac{d}{2}$.
On the otherhand a "pseudo-distribution of degree $d$" is defined as a map $D : \{\pm 1\}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that $(1)$ $\sum_{x \in \{\pm 1\}^n } D(x) =1$ and $(2)$ $\sum_{x \in \{\pm 1\}^n } D(x) f(x) \geq 0 $ if $f$ can be written as a sum of squares of polynomials each of degree $\leq \frac{d}{2}$ i.e if $f \in SOS_{\leq d}$ (the cone of sum-of-squares of polynomials of degree at most $\frac{d}{2}$)
It is trivial to see that given a map $D$ of the later type we can always create a map of the first type by defining , $L(Q) := \sum_{x \in \{\pm 1\}^n } D(x) Q(x)$.
But does every map Lasserre map $L$ induce a pseudo-distribution $D$?
Can one think of this $\{\pm 1\}^n$ as $\mathbb{F}_2^n$ and then is there any meaning (or use!) to ask for a generalization to $\mathbb{F}_q^n$?