As a follow-up of my previous question, which was resolved by Hsien-Chih Chang, here is another attempt to find an appropriate generalisation of Ramsey's theorem. (You don't need to read the previous question; this post is self-contained.)
Parameters: integers $1 \ll d \ll k \ll n$ are given, and then $N$ is chosen to be sufficiently large. Terminology: an $m$-subset is a subset of size $m$.
Let $B = \{1,2,...,N\}$. For each $k$-subset $S \subset B$, assign a colour $f(S) \in \{0,1\}$.
Definitions:
- $X \subset B$ is monochromatic if $f(S) = f(S')$ for all $k$-subsets $S \subset X$ and $S' \subset X$.
- $X \subset B$ is diverse if $X = \{ x_1, x_2, ..., x_n \}$ such that $x_i < x_{i+1}$ and $x_i\,\not\equiv x_{i+1} \text{ mod } d$ for all $i$.
For example, if $d = 10$, then $\{ 12, 15, 23, 32, 39 \}$ is diverse but $\{ 12, 15, 25, 32, 39 \}$ is not. Note that a subset of a diverse set is not necessarily diverse.
Now Ramsey's theorem says that no matter how we choose $f$, there is a monochromatic $n$-subset $X \subset B$. And obviously it is trivial to find a diverse $n$-subset $X \subset B$.
Question: is there always a diverse and monochromatic $n$-subset $X \subset B$?
Edit: Hsien-Chih Chang shows that the claim is false for a prime $d$, but what about composite $d$? In my applications, I will have a lot of freedom in choosing the exact values of $d \ll k \ll n$, as long as I can make them arbitrarily large. They can be powers of primes, products of prime numbers, or whatever is necessary to make the claim true.