Short question
In the end of section 1 of Regev's notes about the AKS algorithm for SVP, why is the following true?
for each such $i$,$y_i− x_i$ remains $w$ with probability $1/2$ or otherwise becomes one of $w+v$ or $w−v$.
Extended question
AKS finds a shortest non-zero vector of any $n$-dimensional Euclidean lattice $\Lambda$ in time $2^{O(n)}$.
Actually, it is a randomized algorithm and the output is correct with very high probability, say $1 - 2^{\Omega(n)}$.
Although the intuition about why the output is correct with high probability is simple, the proof is rather technical and it basically goes like this:
The algorithm samples a set of vectors $x_1, ..., x_N$ in the beginning. To each of those vectors, one lattice point is associated (the number of lattice points is much smaller than $N$, so a lot of $x_i$ maps to same lattice point). To prove that the algorithm works (with overwhelming probability) you substitute the sampling method so that if $x_i$ is in a specific region $C_1$, then it is replaced by $x_i + v$, if it it lies in another specific (symmetric) region $C_2$, then it is replaced by $x_i - v$, or it continues to be $x_i$ otherwise, where $v$ is a shortest vector.
Then, the goal is to show that for at least one pair of vectors $x_i$ and $x_j$ that map to a same $w \in \Lambda$, we have $x_i \in C_1 \cup C_2$ and $x_j \not \in C_1 \cup C_2$, so that the difference of the associated lattice points become $(w \pm v) - w = \pm v$, which is a shortest vector.
But I don't understand the analysis of the probabilities involved in this step. Since the vectors $x_i$ considered in the end of section 1 of Regev's notes are all points in $C_1 \cup C_2$, all of them should be "flipped" around $v$, then $w$ would never remain $w$.