I have a question about the paper "NP is as easy as detecting unique solutions" by Valiant and Vazirani, specifically the proof of the Theorem 2.4(i).
The proof starts by saying
Clearly, $P_n(S) \ge P(S) \cdot \Pr(H_1 \cap \ldots \cap H_n = \{ 0^n\})$
Here, $S \subseteq \{0, 1\}^n$, $P_n(S)$ is defined as the probability over random vectors $w_1, \ldots, w_n$ that there is some $i$ between $1$ and $n$ such that $|S_i| = 1$ where $S_i = \{v \in S : v \cdot w_1 = \cdots = v \cdot w_i = 0\}$ where we take dot products mod 2. Also, $H_i = \{ v \in \{0, 1\}^n : v \cdot w_i = 0 \}$.
And $P(S)$ is defined to be the probability over infinite sequence $w_1, \ldots$ such that there is some $i$ such that $|S_i| = 1$.
Could anyone provide an explanation why the above statement is true?
We can show that the event $\{ \exists i, \lvert S_i \rvert = 1 \& H_1 \cap \cdots \cap H_n = \{0^n\} \}$ is contained in $\{ \exists i \le n, \lvert S_i \rvert = 1 \}$. So, it is sufficient to show that $\Pr(\{ \exists i, \lvert S_i \rvert = 1 \& H_1 \cap \cdots \cap H_n = \{0^n\} \}) \ge P(S) P(H_1 \cap \cdots \cap H_n = \{0^n\})$. This is equivalent to showing that $\Pr(\{ \exists i, \lvert S_i \rvert = 1 \mid H_1 \cap \cdots \cap H_n = \{0^n\} \}) \ge P(S)$.
My intuition is that the probability of the infinite sequence $\lvert S_i \rvert$ hitting to $1$ is independent of what happens to the sequence of $H_1 \cap \cdots \cap H_k$ for a fixed $k$, since with probability $1$, the intersection of $H_i$ will become $\{0^n\}$ at some point. But I am not really sure how to formalize this idea.